What exactly is so threatening about this?
Every Reformed minister loves preaching from Romans and Galatians. Presenting the Mosaic law as teaching a works principle really helps in explaining Paul’s doctrine of justification: what sin is all about, why people can’t rely on their own law-keeping, how faith is radically different from works, how Christ fulfilled the terms of the law so that we may be justified. That’s the gospel as I see it, but you can’t explain the gospel without understanding the law. Or take all of those Old Testament passages that call for Israel’s obedience and promise blessing and threaten curse in the land depending on their response. For example, the beginning of Deuteronomy 4, which tells Israel to follow the law so that they may live and take possession of the land. Or Deuteronomy 28, which recounts all sorts of earthly blessings in the land if the Israelites are careful to obey and all sorts of earthly curses if they aren’t. I don’t want a congregation to think that God was holding out a works-based way of salvation here, and I also can’t tell the congregation that this is the same way that God deals with the New Testament church when he calls her to obedience, for there’s nothing equivalent in the New Testament, no promise of earthly blessing for the church today if we meet a standard of obedience. Saying either of those things might by simple, but of course they’d be misleading, and damaging for the church to hear. (The Law is Not of Faith, 5)
Could it be that this view seems to allow Christians to think that law-keeping does not contribute to their salvation? Well, if the law requires “personal, perfect, and perpetual conformity and obedience thereunto, in the frame and disposition of the whole man, soul and body, and in performance of all those duties of holiness and righteousness which he owes to God and man: promising life upon the fulfilling, and threatening death upon the breach of it,” who is up to that challenge? Don’t be bashful.
Oops, I meant Leviticus 26:14.
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I can’t really comment as to its oddness. Calvin was not dealing at that time with the same questions we are. But if you’re suggesting that silence here indicates that Calvin did not think that believers in the MC were under any legal principle whatsoever, then I would point you to Inst 2.11.9.
It is one thing to be under the Law as a covenant of works to inherit eternal life, another to be under a legal economy whose goods and services are external, literal, physical, typological.
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I can’t really comment as to its oddness. Calvin was not dealing at that time with the same questions we are.
No, I don’t buy that. A works principle for temporal blessings seems like a rather universally important doctrine, not merely a context-specific one, and I can’t imagine that Calvin, as thorough and pastoral as he was, wouldn’t make mention of it, if he in fact held to it.
But if you’re suggesting that silence here indicates that Calvin did not think that believers in the MC were under any legal principle whatsoever, then I would point you to Inst 2.11.9.
What I’m suggesting is that the silence indicates that Calvin did not think that believers under the MC were under a works principle for temporal blessings. And Institutes 2.11.9 doesn’t help your case, because it is quite clear that Calvin is speaking there of the moral law strictly considered, not of a works principle for temporal blessings, as we can see from his explanation in 2.11.7:
That he is speaking specifically of the moral law is also obvious in what follows (in 2.11.8), as he elaborates on its pedagogy:
And it is also clear in the section you specifically reference (2.11.9):
This is clearly Calvin’s way of saying that Israelite believers were freed from the law as a covenant of works (WCF 19.6, 20:1). The contrast is between the liberty of the regenerate versus the bondage of the unregenerate.
Immediately following this comes the passage you claim for support:
So yes, according to Calvin, OT believers did indeed experience “some measure of fear and bondage.” But what was the nature of this fear and bondage? Was it that they were under a works principle for temporal blessings? No. It was that they were (along with unregenerate Israelites) obligated to observe the ceremonial law—the “handwriting” against them, testifying of their guilt.
Calvin is really saying very much the same thing in 2.11.9 that the Westminster Confession says in 20.1:
As Calvin also explained, the advantage of NT believers is that their liberty “is further enlarged, in their freedom from the yoke of the ceremonial law, to which the Jewish Church was subjected.” In addition, we are told that the liberty of NT believers also consists in “greater boldness of access to the throne of grace, and in fuller communications of the free Spirit of God, than believers under the law did ordinarily partake of.” But (as with Calvin), there is no mention of OT believers being subject to a works principle for temporal blessings, or NT believers being freed from such.
It is one thing to be under the Law as a covenant of works to inherit eternal life, another to be under a legal economy whose goods and services are external, literal, physical, typological.
But we have seen that Calvin (in 2.11.9) is not speaking of “a legal economy whose goods and services are external, literal, physical, typological” (assuming that you mean a works principle for temporal blessings). On that topic, he apparently was indeed utterly silent.
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David,
Where is this discussion of Calvin going? I can respond to the above, but I fear we are heading down a side-trail.
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Jeff, I pointed to one place where Calvin would have mentioned repub if he held to it–in his comments on the covenant sanctions. You pointed to another–his enumeration of the differences between the MC and the NC. But in both places he is silent concerning repub. It may be a bit of an excursion, but I think it winds up at the same destination. However, if you’d rather wait for my responses to your FT posts, no problem.
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OK, I’ll give it one round, but then let’s focus back on FT.
DR: What I’m suggesting is that the silence indicates that Calvin did not think that believers under the MC were under a works principle for temporal blessings.
So you begin with an argument from silence. What other possibilities for the silence have you considered and eliminated, other than the one you put forward?
For the rest, Calvin screams “repub” to me. You cite,
When we talk about republication, we are talking about considering the Law according to its own nature. We are talking about its functions of holding forth rewards to the cultivators of righteousness and punishments to transgressors, variously according to the moral, civil, and ceremonial law.
According to its own nature:
* The moral held forth (hypothetically) eternal life on condition of perfect obedience and eternal death for the first disobedience.
* The civil held forth physical, outward penalties for transgressors. These were applied without regard to faith or repentance.
* The ceremonial held forth external cleansing on condition of sacrifice. This was equally true for the justified and the unjustified, without regard to faith or repentance.
If you want to talk about the things signified under the veil, sure. Those were apprehended by faith and not works. That would be viewing the law according to its evangelical relation. But the law according to its own nature, viewed according to the legal relation, operated by a works principle.
Now, I’m really confused as to why you say that Calvin is speaking solely of the moral law here. For he says,
Calv Inst 2.11.8
So Calvin is speaking in 2.11 of the entire OT law in general, and is speaking specifically of the moral only when he uses that qualifier.
And what he says about the entire OT law in general, and as contrasted to the gospel, is that it involves the whole human race in a curse. That includes the ceremonial law, he explicitly says.
For what reason are you reading that differently?
Finally, I hear this from you:
DR: So yes, according to Calvin, OT believers did indeed experience “some measure of fear and bondage.” But what was the nature of this fear and bondage? Was it that they were under a works principle for temporal blessings? No. It was that they were (along with unregenerate Israelites) obligated to observe the ceremonial law—the “handwriting” against them, testifying of their guilt.
And I’m completely baffled. To say that the OT believers were obligated to observe the ceremonial law is to say that they were under a works principle to obtain external expiation.
Why?
Because the obligation to the ceremonial law worked like this:
* You are unclean (sin or circumstance, such as touching an unclean thing).
* You are now obligated to perform the necessary rite.
* Having performed the rite and because you have performed the rite, you now are declared clean. (without regard to faith or repentance).
THAT’S A WORKS PRINCIPLE. BY PERFORMING THE WORK, YOU OBTAIN THE EXTERNAL EXPIATION.
To say that OT believers were under the yoke of the ceremonial law is to say that they were under a legal principle.
That’s my one round on Calvin.
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DR: What I’m suggesting is that the silence indicates that Calvin did not think that believers under the MC were under a works principle for temporal blessings.
JC: So you begin with an argument from silence. What other possibilities for the silence have you considered and eliminated, other than the one you put forward?
I’m glad you admit to the silence (which in this case is rather deafening).
For the rest, Calvin screams “repub” to me. You cite,
When we talk about republication, we are talking about considering the Law according to its own nature. We are talking about its functions of holding forth rewards to the cultivators of righteousness and punishments to transgressors, variously according to the moral, civil, and ceremonial law.
Sorry, that is not at all what repub is about. None of those things are in question. Let’s please stick to the question (i.e., temporal blessings on the meritorious ground of imperfect obedience).
Now, I’m really confused as to why you say that Calvin is speaking solely of the moral law here. For he says,
So Calvin is speaking in 2.11 of the entire OT law in general, and is speaking specifically of the moral only when he uses that qualifier.
No. He is actually speaking of the moral law, until he actually specifies that “[t]he last antithesis must be referred to the Ceremonial Law.” The ceremonial law is not “formed on tables of stone.” That should solve your confusion.
And what he says about the entire OT law in general, and as contrasted to the gospel, is that it involves the whole human race in a curse. That includes the ceremonial law, he explicitly says.
For what reason are you reading that differently?
See just above.
Finally, I hear this from you:
DR: So yes, according to Calvin, OT believers did indeed experience “some measure of fear and bondage.” But what was the nature of this fear and bondage? Was it that they were under a works principle for temporal blessings? No. It was that they were (along with unregenerate Israelites) obligated to observe the ceremonial law—the “handwriting” against them, testifying of their guilt.
And I’m completely baffled. To say that the OT believers were obligated to observe the ceremonial law is to say that they were under a works principle to obtain external expiation.
We know what Jeff Cagle thinks, but John Calvin thinks otherwise. For him, the yoke of the ceremonial law is simply the obligation to observe the ceremonial law, and the reason it engendered fear was that it testified of guilt, and therefore of liability to a penalty. Compare with his comments on Colossians 2:14:
Also compare with Institutes 2.7.17:
* Having performed the rite and because you have performed the rite, you now are declared clean. (without regard to faith or repentance).
THAT’S A WORKS PRINCIPLE. BY PERFORMING THE WORK, YOU OBTAIN THE EXTERNAL EXPIATION.
That’s your interpolation, but shouting doesn’t make it any truer….
(I’m happy to resume with FT now if you’d like.)
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That would be best.
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Jeff, sorry for the delay. Thanks for hanging in there . . . I’ll be posting my response soon (perhaps not today, but very likely in the next few days. . . .).
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